Finance Bill 2022 & amendment related to Charitable Trust and Institutions

Finance Bill 2022 & amendment related to Charitable Trust and Institutions

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Finance Bill 2022 & amendment related to Charitable Trust and Institutions

 
There are lot many changes and amendment related to Charitable Trust and Institutions which are proposed by the Finance Bill 2022. Let us know about it
 
 
  1. Income of any fund or institution or trust or any university or other educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution referred to in sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 or any trust or institution registered u/s 12AA or 12AB of the Act is exempt subject to the fulfilment of the conditions provided under various sections. The exemption to these trusts or institutions is available under the two regimes
(i) Regime for any fund or institution or trust or any university or other educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution referred to in sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or sub-clause
(via) of clause (23C) of section 10 (hereinafter referred to as trust or institution under first regime);  and
(ii)  Regime for the trusts registered under section 12AA/12AB (hereinafter referred to as trust or institution under the second regime).
In the Finance Bill, it is proposed to rationalise the provisions of both the exemption regimes by-
(I)   ensuring their effective monitoring and implementation;
(II)   bringing consistency in the provisions of the two exemption regimes; and
(III)   providing clarity on taxation in certain circumstances.
  1. Some    consequential   amendments    are    also   proposed    following   the amendments of past few years. All the proposals are discussed below:-
  1. Ensuring effective monitoring and Implementation of two exemption regimes
 Books of account to be maintained by the trusts or institutions under both the regimes
a)Where the total income of any trust or institution under the second regime, as computed under this Act   without   giving   effect   to   the   provisions   of section 11 and section 12 of the Act, exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to income-tax in any previous year, it is required to get its accounts audited. Similar provision exists for the trusts or institutions under the first regime in the tenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act.
b)However, there is no specific provision under the Act providing for the books of accounts to be maintained by such trusts or institutions. In order to ensure proper implementation of both the exemption regimes, it is proposed to amend clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 12A of the Act and tenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that where the total income of the trust or institution under both regimes, without giving effect to the provisions of clause (23C) of section 10 or section 11 and 12, exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to tax, such trust
 
or institution shall keep and maintain books of account and other documents in such form and manner and at such place, as may be prescribed.
c)These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment
 
Penalty for passing on unreasonable benefits to trustee or specified persons
a)Under section 13 of the Act, trusts or institution under the second regime are required not to pass on any unreasonable benefit to the trustee or any other specified  In order to discourage such misuse of the funds of the trust or institution by specified persons, it is proposed to insert a new section 271AAE in the Act to provide for penalty on trusts or institution under both the regimes which is equal to amount of income applied by such trust or institution for the benefit of specified person where the violation is noticed for the first time during any previous year and twice the amount of such income where the violation is notice again in any subsequent year. The proposed section seeks to operate without prejudice to any other provision of chapter XXI. Thus, if any penalty is leviable under any of the other provisions of this chapter, in addition to the proposed penalty, that penalty would also be applicable.
b)The proposed new section seeks to provide that, if during any proceeding under the Act, it is found that a person, being any trust or institution under the first or the second regime, has violated the provisions of twenty-first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 (proposed to be inserted by the Finance Bill and discussed in subsequent paragraphs) or clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13, as the case may be, the Assessing Officer may direct that such person shall pay by way of penalty,
i)a sum equal to the aggregate amount of income applied, directly or indirectly, by such person, for the benefit of any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13 where the violation is noticed for the first time during any previous year; and
ii)a sum equal to two hundred percent of the aggregate amount of income of such person applied, directly or indirectly, by such person, for the benefit of any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13, where violation is noticed again in any subsequent previous year.
c)These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment
[Clause 76]
Reference to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner (PCIT/CIT) for the cancellation of registration/approval:
a)The following issues related to the process of approval or registration, or cancellation or withdrawal thereof, have been noticed, namely:-
i)Registrationor approval of non-genuine trusts or institution under automated approval system:
First and second provisos to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act were substituted by new provisos by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 w.e.f. 01.04.2021. These provisos provided that the application for the approval of any trust or institution under the first regime, shall be made to the jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner and such Principal Commissioner or Commissioner shall grant approval after examination of the application. Earlier such applications were required to be filed before the prescribed authority. Similarly, provisions of clause (ac) of sub-section (1) of section 12A provide that application for the trusts or institution under the second regime shall be made to the principal Commissioner or Commissioner. The provisional registrations or provisional approval or re-registrations or approvals in certain cases, under these clauses, are granted in an automated manner and the respective rules have been amended accordingly. It is essential to ensure that non-genuine trusts or institutions do not get exemption provided by these provisions.
ii)Differences in the provisions related to reference for the cancellation of trusts under the both the regimes:
Prvisions of sub-section (3) of section 143 provide that no order under this sub- section shall be made, denying the benefits of clause (23C) of section 10, unless the Assessing Officer has intimated the Central Government or prescribed authority the contravention of the provisions of sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v) or sub-clause (vi) or sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 and approval granted to such trust or institution has been rescinded. There is no such provision in cases of trusts or institutions under second regime.
iii)  No time limit prescribed for the PCIT/CIT to decide on references for the withdrawal of approval:
For the trusts or institutions under the first regime, the provisions for making reference by the Assessing Officer to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner are contained in the first proviso to sub-section (3) of section 143 and the time limitation for the completion of assessment is extended as per the provisions of clause (iii) of Explanation 1 to section 153. Presently, there is no time limit for such Principal Commissioner or Commissioner to decide on such reference.
b)In order to address the above issues, it is proposed to amend the provisions of section 12AB and fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act as follows:
(I) Sub-section (4) of section 12AB of the Act is proposed to be substituted with a new sub-section (4) to provide that where registration or provisional registration of a trust or an institution has been granted under clause (a) or clause (b) or clause
(c)  of sub-section (1) of section 12AB or clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 12AA, as the case may be, and subsequently,
(a)  the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner has noticed occurrence of one or more specified violations during any previous year;
(b)  the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner has received a reference from the Assessing Officer under the second proviso to sub-section (3) of section 143 for any previous year, or
(c)  such case has been selected in accordance with the risk management strategy, formulated by the Board from time to time, for any previous year,
the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner shall—
(i) call for such documents or information from the trust or institution or make such inquiry as he thinks necessary in order to satisfy himself about the occurrence or otherwise of any specified violation;
(ii) pass an order in writing cancelling the registration of such trust or institution, after affording a reasonable opportunity of being heard, for such previous year and all subsequent previous years, if he is satisfied that one or more specified violation have taken place;
(iii) pass an order in writing refusing to cancel the registration of such trust or institution, if he is not satisfied about the occurrence of one or more specified violation;
(iv) forward a copy of the order under clause (ii) or (iii), as the case may be, to the Assessing Officer and such trust or institution.
(II) The term “specified violation” is proposed to be defined by inserting an Explanation to sub-section (4) of section 12AB of the Act to mean the following violation :-
(a) where any income of the trust or institution under the second regime has been applied other than for the objects for which it is established; or
(b) the trust of institution under the second regime has income from profits and gains of business whichis not incidental to the attainment of its objectives or separate books of account are not maintained by it in respect of the business which is incidental to the attainment of its objectives; or
(c) the trust or the institution under the second regime has applied any part of its income from the property held under a trust for private religious purposes which does not enure for the benefit of the public; or
(d) the trust or institution under the second regime established for charitable purpose created or established after the commencement of this Act, has applied any part of its income for the benefit of any particular religious community or caste;
(e) any activity being carried outby the trust or the institution under the second regime,
(i)  is not genuine; or
(ii) is not being carried out in accordance with all or any of the conditions subject to which it was registered; or
 
(f)  the trust or the institution under the second regime has not complied with the requirement of any other law, as referred to in item (B) of sub-clause (i) of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 12AB, and the order, direction or decree, by whatever name called, holding that such non-compliance has occurred, has either not been disputed or has attained finality.
III) Sub-section (5) of section 12AB of the Act is proposed to be substituted with a new sub-section (5) to provide that that the order under clause (ii) or (iii) of sub- section (4) shall be passed before expiry of the period of six months, calculated from the end of the quarter in which the first notice is issued by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, on or after the 1st day of April, 2022, calling for any document or information, or for making any inquiry, under clause (i) of sub- section (4);
IV)Similarly, the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act is proposed to be substituted to provide that where the fund or institution referred to in sub-clause (iv) or trust or institution referred to in sub-clause (v) or any university or other educational institution referred to in sub-clause (vi) or any hospital or other medical institution referred to in sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of the said section 10 is approved under said clause and subsequently—
(a) the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner has noticed occurrence of one or more specified violations during any previous year;
(b) the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner has received a reference from the Assessing Officer under the second proviso to sub-section (3) of section 143 for any previous year; or
(c) such case has been selected in accordance with the risk management strategy, formulated by the Board from time to time, for any previous year,
the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner shall—
(i) call for such documents or information from the fund or trust or institution or any university or other educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution or make such inquiry as he thinks necessary in order to satisfy himself about the occurrence of any specified violation;
(ii) pass an order in writing cancelling the approval of such fund or trust or institution or any university or other educational institution or any hospital or
 
other medical institution, on or before the specified date, after affording a reasonable opportunity of being heard, for such previous year and all subsequent previous years if he is satisfied that one or more specified violation has taken place;
(iii) pass an order in writing refusing to cancel the approval of such fund or trust or institution or any university or other educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution, on or before the specified date, if he is not satisfied about the occurrence of one or more specified violations;
(iv) forward a copy of the order under clause (ii) or (iii), as the case may be, to the Assessing Officer and such fund or trust or institution or any university or other educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution;
V)It is also proposed to insert an Explanation 1 to the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of this proviso, “specified date” shall mean the day on which the period of six months, calculated from the end of the quarter in which the first notice is issued by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, on or after the 1st day of April, 2022, calling for any document or information, or for making any inquiry, under clause (i)
VI)The term “specified violation” is also proposed to be defined by inserting an Explanation (Explanation 2) to the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to mean the following: –
(a)  where any income of trust or institution under the first regime has been applied other than for the objects for which it is established; or
(b) the trust or institution under the first regime has income from profits and gains of business is not incidental to the attainment of its objectives or separate books of account are not maintained by it in respect of the business which is incidental to the attainment of its objectives; or
(c)   any activity being carried out by the trust or institution under the first regime—
(A) is not genuine; or
(B) is not being carried out in accordance with all or any of the conditions subject to which it was notified or approved; or
 
(d) the trust or institution under the first regime has not complied with the requirement of any other law for the time being in force, and the order, direction or decree, by whatever name called, holding that such non- compliance has occurred, has either not been disputed or has attained finality. Consequentially sub-section (3) of section 143 of the Act is proposed to be amended by deleting the reference to trusts or institution under the first regime in
the first proviso and delete the existing third proviso.
It is also proposed to provide by inserting an Explanation (Explanation 3) to the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act that where a reference, under the first proviso to sub-section (3) of section 143, has been made on or before the 31st March, 2022 by the Assessing Officer for the contravention of certain provisions of clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act, such references shall be dealt with in the manner provided under the said Explanation.
VII) It is proposed to insert another proviso in sub-section (3) of section 143 of the Act providing that where the Assessing Officer is satisfied that any trust or institution under first or second regime has committed any specified violation, as defined in the Explanation 2 to fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or Explanation to sub-section (4) of section 12AB, as the case may be, he shall,
(a)   send a reference to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner to withdraw the approval or registration, as the case may be; and
(b)  no order making an assessment of the total income or loss of such fund or institution or trust or any university or other educational institution orany hospital or other medical institution shall be made by him without giving effect to the order passed by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under clause (ii) or (iii) of the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or clause (ii) or (iii) of sub-section (4) of section 12AB
Consequentially, it is also proposed to amend the provisions of clause (iii) of Explanation to section 153 by deleting the reference to trusts or institution under the first regime and to insert a new clause (xiii) to provide that the period commencing from the date on which the Assessing Officer makes a reference to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under the second proviso to sub-
section (3) of section 143 or is deemed to have been made under Explanation 3 to the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10, and ending with the date on which the copy of the order under clause (ii) or (iii) of fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or clause (ii) or (iii) of sub-section (4) of section 12AB, as the case may be, is received by the Assessing Officer shall be excluded in computing the period of limitation.
These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2022.
[Clauses 4, 7, 40 and 48]
 
  1. Bringing consistency in the provisions of two exemption the regimes
As mentioned earlier, there is a requirement for alignment of certain provisions of the two regimes as they both intend to grant similar benefit.
Accumulation provisions
i)Under the existing provisions of the Act, a trust or institution is required to apply 85% of its income during any previous year. However, if it is not able to apply 85% of its income during the previous year, it is allowed to accumulate such income for a period not exceeding 5 years as per the following provisions, namely:
(I)     sub-section (2) of section 11 of the Act for the trusts or institution under the second regime; and
(II)    third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act for trusts or institution under the first regime.
ii)However, the accumulation of income, as per the provisions of sub-section (2) of section 11 of the Act is allowed subject to the fulfilment of certain conditions while there are no such conditions specifically provided under the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act;
iii) Similarly, sub-section (3) of section 11 of the Act provides for the specific previous year in which the accumulated income will be subjected to tax in case of different types of violations. It, inter alia, provides that if the accumulated income is not applied within 5 years, it shall be taxed in the 6th year. While, on the other hand, there are no such specific provisions under clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act and therefore, if the accumulated income is not applied within 5 years, the same shall be taxed in the 5th year itself.
iv)In order to bring consistency in the two regimes, the following are proposed:-
A)It is proposed to amend the provisions of sub-section (3) of section 11 of the Act to provide that any income referred to in sub-section (2) which is not utilised for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set apart shall be deemed to be the income of such person of the previous year being the last previous year of the period, for which the income is accumulated or set apart under clause (a) of sub- section (2) of section 11, but not utilised for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set
B)It is proposed to insert Explanation 3 to the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of determining the amount of application under this proviso, where eighty-five per cent of the income referred to in clause (a) of the third proviso, is not applied, wholly and exclusively to the objects for which the trust or institution under the first regime is established, during the previous year but is accumulated or set apart, either in whole or in part, for application to such objects, such income so accumulated or set apart shall not be included in the total income of the previous year of the person in receipt of the income, provided the following conditions are complied with, namely:—
(a) such person furnishes a statement in the prescribed form and in the prescribed manner to the Assessing Officer, stating the purpose for which the income is being accumulated or set apart and the period for which the income is to be accumulated or set apart, which shall in no case exceed five years;
(b)  the money so accumulated or set apart is invested or deposited in the forms or modes specified in sub-section (5) of section 11; and
(c) the statement referred to in clause (a) of Explanation 3 is furnished on or before the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139 for furnishing the return of income for the previous year;
C)It is proposed to insert a proviso to the proposed Explanation 3 to the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that in computing the period of five years referred to in sub-clause (a), the period during which the income could not be applied for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set apart, due to an order or injunction of any court, shall be
D)It is also proposed to insert an Explanation (Explanation 4) to third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 to provide that any income referred to in the proposed Explanation 3 shall be deemed to be the income of the previous year in which the following takes place—
(a) the income is applied for purposes other than wholly and exclusively to the objects for which the trust or institution under the first regime is established or ceases to be accumulated or set apart for application thereto, or
(b) the income ceases to remain invested or deposited in any of the forms or modes specified in sub-section (5) of section 11, or
(c) the income is not utilised for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set apart during the period referred to in clause (a) of the proposed Explanation 3,
(d)    the income is credited or paid to any trust or institution under the first or second regime.
For the circumstances referred to in clause (c), it is proposed that the income shall be deemed to be the income of previous year which is the last previous year of the period, for which the income is accumulated or set apart under sub-clause
(a) of clause (iii) of the proposed Explanation 3, but not utilised for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set apart.
E)It is proposed to insert an Explanation (Explanation 5) to third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to enable the Assessing Officer to allow trusts or institutions under the first regime in circumstances beyond their control to apply such accumulated income for such other purpose in India as is specified in the application by such person subsequent to fulfilment of specified conditions. These other purposes are required to be in conformity with the objects for which the trust
or institution under the first regime is established. If it is done, the provisions of Explanation 4 to third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 shall apply as if the purpose specified by such person in the application under this Explanation were a purpose specified in the notice given to the Assessing Officer under clause (a) of the proposed Explanation 3 of the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10.
F)It is proposed to insert a proviso to proposed Explanation 5 to third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that the Assessing Officer shall not allow the application of any accumulated income, as referred to in the proposed Explanation 3, to be credited or paid to any trust or institution under the first or second regime, as referred to in clause (d) of proposed Explanation 4 to the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10.
v)These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment
[Clauses 4 and 5 ]
 
Bringing consistency in the provisions relating to payment to specified person
i)Under section 13 of the Act, trusts or institutions under the second regime are required not to pass on any unreasonable benefit to the trustee or any other specified  It is proposed to insert twenty first proviso in clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that where the income or part of income or property of any trust or institution under the first regime, has been applied directly or indirectly for the benefit of any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13, such income or part of income or property shall be deemed to be the income of such person of the previous year in which it is so applied. The provisions of sub-section (2), (4) and (6) of section 13 of the Act shall also apply to trust or institution under the first regime.
ii)This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment
[Clause 4]
 The provisions of section 115TD to apply to any trust or institution under the first regime.
i)Chapter XII-EB was introduced by the Finance Act, 2016. It provides for the taxation of accreted income of the trust in certain cases. A society or a company or a trust or an institution carrying on charitable activity may voluntarily wind up its activities and dissolve or may also merge with any other charitable or non-charitable institution, or it may convert into a non-charitable organization. In order to ensure that the intended purpose of exemption availed by trust or institution is achieved, a specific provision in the Act was brought about for imposing a levy in the nature of an exit tax which is attracted when the organisation is converted into a non-charitable organisation or gets merged with a non-charitable organisation or a charitable organisation with dissimilar objects or does not transfer the assets to another charitable organisation. Accordingly, a new Chapter XII-EB consisting of Sections 115TD, 115TE and 115TF was inserted in the Act.
ii)The provisions of the Chapter XII-EB have been made applicable to only the trusts or institutions under the second regime. However, the provisions are not applicable to any trust or institution under the first regime.
iii) Hence, it is proposed to amend the provisions of section 115TD, 115TE and 115TF of the Act to make them applicable to any trust or institution under the first regime as well.
iv)These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment
[Clauses 31, 32 and 33]
 
 
Filing of return by person claiming exemption under clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act
i)According to clause (ba) of sub-section (1) of section 12A of the Act, If a trust or institution under the second regime does not furnish return of income in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (4A) of section 139, within the time allowed under that section, then provisions of sections 11 and 12 are not applicable. There is no similar provision in the other regime.
ii)Hence, it is proposed to insert twentieth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that for the purpose of exemption under this clause, any trust or institution under the first regime is required to furnish the return of income for the previous year in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (4C) of section 139 of the Act, within the time allowed under that section.
This amendment will take effect from the 1st April, 2023, and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment years.
[Clause 4]
 
  1. Providing clarity on taxation in certain circumstances
There are various conditions prescribed for availing exemption under the two regimes. There is a need for clear provisions in the Act listing out how income is to be computed in case of non-compliance. Hence, it is proposed to provide for the same so that there is no dispute and the law is applied consistently.
Allowing certain expenditure in case of denial of exemption
i)Different provisions mandate denial of exemption to the trusts or institutions under both the regimes. Some of the provisions under which exemption is not available for its violation are as follows:
(a)   Having commercial receipts in excess of 20% of the annual receipts in violation of the provisions of proviso to section 2(15);
(b)  Not getting the books of account audited;
(c)  Not filing the return of income presently specifically provided under the second regime only;
ii)There is presently lack of clarity on computation of taxable income in case of non- availability of exemption in these  For example, if the exemption is denied to the trust or institution for the late submission of the audit report, its entire receipts may be subjected to taxation and no deduction for any application may be allowed.
iii) In order to bring clarity in the computation of the income chargeable to tax in such cases, the following amendments are proposed: –
(a) It is proposed to insert sub-section (10) in section 13 of the Act to provide that where the provisions of sub-section (8) are applicable to any trust or institution under the second regime or such trust or institution violates the conditions prescribed under clause (b) or clause (ba) of sub-section (1) of section 12A, its income chargeable to tax shall be computed after allowing deduction for the expenditure (other than capital expenditure) incurred in India, for the objects of the trust or institution, subject to fulfilment of the following conditions, namely :-
(i) such expenditure is not from the corpus standing to the credit of such trust or institution as on the last day of the financial year immediately preceding the previous year relevant to the assessment year for which the income is being computed;
(ii) such expenditure is not from any loan or borrowing;
(iii) claim of depreciation is not in respect of an asset, acquisition of which has been claimed as application of income in the same or any other previous year; and
(iv)    such expenditure is not in the form of any contribution or donation to any person.
(b) It is also proposed to insert an Explanation to sub-section (10) to section 13 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of determining the amount of expenditure under this sub-section, the provisions of sub-clause (ia) of clause (a) of section 40 and sub-sections (3) and (3A) of section 40A, shall, mutatis mutandis, apply as they apply in computing the income chargeable under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”.
(c) It is also proposed to insert sub-section (11) to section 13 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of computing income chargeable to tax, under sub-section
 
(10), no deduction in respect of any expenditure or allowance or set-off of any loss shall be allowed to the assessee under any other provision of the Act.
(d) Similarly, it is proposed to insert twenty second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that where any trust or institution under the first regime violates the provisions of the eighteenth proviso or violates the conditions prescribed under tenth or twentieth proviso, its income chargeable to tax shall be computed after allowing deduction for the expenditure (other than capital expenditure) incurred in India, for the objects of such trust or institution, subject to fulfilment of the following conditions:
(i) such expenditure is not from the corpus standing to the credit of such trust or institution as on the last day of the financial year immediately preceding the previous year relevant to the assessment year for which the income is being computed ;
(ii) such expenditure is not from any loan or borrowing;
(iii)   claim of depreciation is not in respect of an asset, acquisition of which has been claimed as application of income in the same or any other previous year; and
(iv) such expenditure is not in the form of any contribution or donation to any person.
(e)It is also proposed to insert an Explanation in the twenty second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of determining the amount of expenditure under this proviso, the provisions of sub-clause (ia) of clause (a) of section 40 and sub-sections (3) and (3A)   of section   40A, shall, mutatis mutandis, apply as they apply in computing the income chargeable under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”.
(f)It is also proposed to insert twenty third proviso in clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of computing income chargeable to tax under twenty second proviso, no deduction in respect of any expenditure or allowance or set-off of any loss shall be allowed to the assessee under any other provision of the Act.
 
These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment years.
[Clauses 4 and 8]
 
Taxation of certain income of the trusts or institutions under both the regimes at special rate
Following incomes of the trusts or institutions are chargeable to tax, under different provisions of the Act:-
(a)  The trusts or institutions under the first or second regime are required not to pass on any unreasonable benefit to the trustee or any other specified person. For the trusts or institutions under the second regime, clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act provides that the entire exemption shall be denied to the trust irrespective of the amount of benefit passed on. For trusts or institutions under the first regime similar provisions is proposed by way of insertion of twentieth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act.
(b) It is mandatory for any trust or institution under the first regime, to keep their funds in the specified modes. Third proviso of clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act specifically provides that the funds of such trusts or institutions shall be maintained in these specified modes. For the trusts or institutions under the second regime, clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act provides that the exemption shall be denied to the trust irrespective of the amount of investment in non-specified modes.
(c)  Further, the trusts or institutions under both the regimes are required to apply at least 85% of their income during the year. Where the trust is not able to apply 85% of the income, it may accumulate such income for maximum 5 years. Sub-section (3) of section 11 of the Act specifically provides for the trusts or institutions under the second regime that such accumulated income, which could not be applied within the period of accumulation (maximum 5 years), shall be deemed to be the income of the trust. Similarly, for the trusts or institutions under the second regime, there is a specific provision under clause (2) of Explanation 1 to sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act providing for the accumulation of income for a period of one year. Sub-
 
section (1B) of section 11 of the Act provides that if the income accumulated under clause (2) of Explanation 1 to sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act could not be applied within the time allowed; it shall be deemed to be the income of the trust.
(d) The trusts or institutions under thefirst regime are also required to apply at least 85% of their income during the year. Where such trust is not able to apply 85% of its income during the year and does not accumulate such income, entire income of such trust shall be subjected to tax where the trust is approved under the second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act since third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act mandates minimum 85% application of income unless such income is accumulated.
Denying exemption to the trust, for small amount of income applied in violation to the provisions referred in clause (a) and (b) above creates difficulties to the trusts or institutions under both the regimes as there is ambiguity about the manner of taxation of such income. Further, there is need for special provision to ensure that the income applied in violation is taxed at special rate without deduction. Accordingly, in order to rationalise the provisions, the following amendments are proposed:-
(a) It is proposed to amend clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act to provide that only that part of income which has been applied in violation to the provisions of the said clause shall be liable to be included in total income.
(b) It is also proposed to insert twenty first proviso in clause (23C) of section 10 to specifically provide that where the income of any trust under the first regime, or any part of the such income or property, has been applied directly or indirectly for the benefit of any person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13, such income or part of income or property shall be deemed to be income of such person of the previous year in which it is so applied. The provisions of sub-section (2), (4) and (6) of section 13 of the Act shall also apply to it.
(c) It is proposed to amend clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act to provide that only the that part of income which has been invested in violation to the provisions of the said clause shall be liable to be included in total income.
(d) It is proposed to insert Explanation 4 in third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to specifically provide that income accumulated which is not utilised
for the purpose for which it is so accumulated or set apart shall be deemed to be the income of such person of the previous year being the last previous year of the period, for which the income is accumulated or set apart.
(e) All the above income are also required to be taxed at special rate. Hence, it is proposed to insert new section 115BBI in the Act providing that where the total income of any assessee being a trust under the first or second regime, includes any income by way of any specified income, the income-tax payable shall be the aggregate of—
(i)  the amount of income-tax calculated at the rate of thirty per cent on the aggregate of specified income; and
(ii) the amount of income-tax with which the assessee would have been chargeable had the total income of the assessee been reduced by the aggregate of specified income referred to in clause (i).
(f) The sub-section (2) of this new section seeks to provide that no deduction in respect of any expenditure or allowance or set off of any loss shall be allowed to the assessee under any provision of the Act in computing specified income.
(g)  Explanation to the proposed section defines “specified income” to mean:-
(i) income accumulated or set apart in excess of fifteen percent of the income where such accumulation is not allowed under any specific provisions of the Act; or
(ii) deemed income referred to in Explanation 4 to third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or sub-section (3) of section 11 or sub-section (1B) of section 11;or
(iii) any income which is not exempt under clause (23C) of section 10 on account of violation of the provisions of clause (b) of third proviso of clause (23C) of section 10 or not to be excluded from total income under the provisions of clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13; or
(iv) any income which is deemed to be income under the twenty first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or which is not excluded from total income under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13; or
(v) any income which is not excluded from total income under clause (c) of sub- section (1) of section 11.
 
These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2023 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2023-24 and subsequent assessment years.
[Clauses 4 , 8 and 28 ]
Voluntary Contributions for the renovation and repair  of temples, mosques, gurudwaras, churches etc notified under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 80G
i)Donations for the renovation and repair of temples, mosques, gurudwaras, churches etc notified under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 80G of the Act are received for specific purposes. However, it is not clear if such donations are treated as corpus donations or are required to be applied or can be accumulated for a maximum period of 5 years.
ii)In order to provide clarity, it is proposed to insert Explanation 3A in sub-section
(1)    of section 11 of the Act to provide that where the property held under a trust or institution includes any temple, mosque, gurdwara, church or other place notified under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 80G, any sum received by such trust or institution as a voluntary contribution for the purpose of renovation or repair of such temple, mosque, gurdwara, church or other place, may, at its option, be treated by such trust or institution as forming part of the corpus of the trust or the institution, subject to the condition that the trust or the institution,
(a)      applies such corpus only for the purpose for which the voluntary contribution was made;
(b)     does not apply such corpus for making contribution or donation to any person; and
(c)      maintains such corpus as separately identifiable;
(d)     invests or deposits such corpus in the forms and modes specified under sub- section (5) of section 11.
iii) It is also proposed to insert Explanation 3B in sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Act to provide that for the purposes of Explanation 3A, where any trust or institution has treated any sum received by it as forming part of the corpus and subsequently any of the conditions specified in clause (a), (b), (c) or clause (d) thereof are violated, such
sum shall be deemed to be the income of such trust or institution of the previous year during which the violation takes place.
iv)It is also proposed to insert Explanation 1A in the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act to provide that where the property held under a  rust or institution referred to in sub-clause (v), includes any temple, mosque, gurdwara, church or other place notified under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 80G of the Act, any sum received by such trust or institution as a voluntary contribution for the purpose of renovation or repair of such temple, mosque, gurdwara, church or other place, may be treated by such trust or institution, at its option, as forming part of corpus of the trust or institution, subject to the condition that the trust or institution,
(a)      applies such corpus only for the specific purpose for which the voluntary donation was made;
(b)      does not apply such corpus for making contribution or donation to any person;
(c)      maintains such corpus as separately identifiable; and
(d)     invests or deposits such corpus in the forms and modes specified under sub- section (5) of section 11.
v)It is also proposed to insert Explanation 1B in the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act providing that for the purposes of Explanation 1A, where any trust or institution referred to in sub-clause (v) has treated any sum received by it as forming part of the corpus and subsequently any of the conditions specified in clause (a), (b), (c) or clause (d) thereof are violated, such sum shall be deemed to be the income of such trust or institution of the previous year during which the violation takes
vi)These amendments will take effect retrospectively from 1st April, 2021 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2021-22 and subsequent assessment
[Clauses 4 and 5 ]
 
Clarifying that application will be allowed only when its actually paid
Trust or institution under both the regimes are required to apply 85% of their income for the purposes specified. As is evident from the word “ application”, it means actually paid. This is the position which has been held by different courts also. Accordingly it is being clarified by inserting Explanations “[Explanation 3 to clause (23C) of section 10 and Explanation to section 11] to provide that any sum payable by any trust under the first or second regime shall be considered as application of income in the previous year in which such sum is actually paid by it irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by such trust according to the method of accounting regularly employed by it. It is further proposed to insert proviso to the proposed Explanations [Explanation 3 to clause (23C) of section 10 and Explanation to section 11] to provide that where during any previous year, any sum has been claimed to have been applied by such trust, such sum shall not be allowed as application in any subsequent previous year.
These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2022 and will accordingly apply to the assessment year 2022-23 and subsequent assessment years.
[Clauses 4 and 5]
 
  1. Consequential Amendments
 Reference to prescribed authority under clause (23C) of section 10
i)First and second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act were substituted by new provisos by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 with effect from the 1st April,  These provisos provided that the application for the approva  of any trust under the first regime, shall be filed before the jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner and such Principal Commissioner or Commissioner shall grant approval after examination of the application. Earlier such applications were required to be filed before the prescribed authority. Accordingly necessary amendments were carried out. However, the reference to prescribed authority continues at certain places in the clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act.
 
ii) It is, therefore, proposed to substitute the reference to prescribed authority with Principal Commissioner or Commissioner in sub-clause (iv), (v), (vi) and (via) and nineteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 of the Act
iii) This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2022.

1 Comment

  1. February 4, 2022
    AJAY MODI

    Good article

    Reply

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